Practice Questions

Exam 1

Questions about Evolution of Populations

1.  

According to the modern synthesis of evolutionary theory, which of the following is true?

Populations are the units of evolution.
Only certain animal species are sexual.
Evolution is independent of genetics.
Segregation and independent assortment explain evolution of the individual and not the species.
All of the above.


2.  

The major addition of the modern synthesis to Darwin's theory was the idea that _____.

evolution is a change in a population's allelic frequencies
within a population, some individuals leave more offspring than others
sexual reproduction can rapidly spread advantageous traits
human-made stresses, such as radiation and pollution, are the major selective forces in nature
all of the above


3.  

Which of the following is the best example of gene flow?

A polyploid plant develops.
Genes are shuffled by the crossing over of chromosomes during meiosis.
An earthquake results in the formation of a canyon, splitting a population of toads apart.
Wind blows pollen from one population of plants to another and cross-fertilization occurs.
All the mutations in a population were neutral.


4.  

Members of the same population _____.

share a common gene pool
cannot interbreed under natural conditions
share the same genotype
are in reproductive isolation from one another
none of the above


5.  

A population is _____.

all living organisms on Earth
the number of humans per unit area
organisms of different species that live together
a group of individuals of the same species occupying a given area
the number of organisms in a particular habitat


6.  

Sexual recombination occurs when chromosomes are shuffled in _____ and fertilization.

mitosis
genetic drift
natural selection
mutation
meiosis


7.  

In the Hardy-Weinberg theorem, p2 represents _____.

the total alleles in the gene pool
the frequency of heterozygous dominants in the gene pool
the frequency of homozygous recessives in the gene pool
all of the possible phenotypes in the gene pool
the frequency of homozygous dominants in the gene pool


8.  

In the Hardy-Weinberg theorem, 1 represents _____.

the sum of the frequencies of all the alleles of a particular gene that exists in a gene pool
the frequency of heterozygous dominants in the gene pool
the frequency of homozygous recessives in the gene pool
all the possible phenotypes in the gene pool
the frequency of homozygous dominants in the gene pool


9.  

Approximately 1 out of every 2,500 Caucasians in the United States is born with the recessive disease cystic fibrosis. According to the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation, approximately how many people are carriers?

1 in 50
96 in 100
1 in 25
1 in 10
none of the above


10.  

Which of the following conditions is NOT required for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a large population
no migration of alleles in or out of the population
no mutations altering the gene pool
sexual selection
random mating


11.  

Assortative (nonrandom) mating can cause evolutionary change by _____________.

causing industrial melanism
restricting gene flow within a population
causing less fit individuals to die
causing a higher mutation rate
keeping Hardy and Weinberg apart


12.  

In a certain group of African people, 4% are born with sickle-cell anemia (homozygous recessive). If this group is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what percentage of the group has the selective advantage of being more resistant to malaria (heterozygous) than those individuals who are homozygous for normal hemoglobin or for sickle-cell anemia?

2%
4%
8%
16%
32%


13.  

All of the following conditions would result in a change in the frequency of a specific allele in a population EXCEPT ____________.

selection against the recessive phenotype
selection against the dominant phenotype
genetic drift
random mating in a large population
mutation of the dominant allele to the recessive allele


14.  

A moth population is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. From this statement, you know that in this population _____

the allelic frequencies are stable
the proportion of each genotype in the population will be the same, generation after generation
the population is not evolving
all of the above
none of the above

 


15.  

A number of mosquito populations today are resistant to specific insecticides even though those species were not resistant when the insecticides were first introduced. Biologists believe that insecticide resistance evolved in mosquitoes because _____.

individual mosquitoes built up an immunity to an insecticide after being exposed to it
mosquitoes needed to develop insecticide resistance to survive after the insecticide was used
a few mosquitoes were probably resistant to the insecticide before it was ever used, and these survived to reproduce
mosquitoes attempted to adapt to their environment
individual mosquitoes built up an immunity to an insecticide after being exposed to it, and mosquitoes needed to develop insecticide resistance to survive after the insecticide was used


16.  

Suppose that, with regard to a particular genetic locus with two alleles, A and a, we know that 60% of the alleles in the gene pool of a particular large population are A. Suppose further that we observe this population for five generations, during which we know that no mutation, selection, or migration has occurred. After this period, the frequency of the a allele is expected to be _____.

0.60
0.40
0.25
0.16
0.50


17.  

In a large population of bonobos, the frequency of the recessive allele is initially 0.1. There is no migration and no selection. What is the frequency of the dominant allele? Assume that there are two alleles of this gene.

10%
20%
50%
90%
99%


18.  

If a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and remains in equilibrium, which of the following will be true?

Allelic and genotypic ratios will gradually change from one generation to the next.
The relative frequencies of three genotypes (AA, Aa, aa) will gradually become stabilized at 1.
Sexual organisms will evolve.
Asexual organisms will not evolve.
There will be no mutations.


19.  

Antibiotic resistance in bacteria is an example of which of the following?

stabilizing selection
directional selection
diversifying selection
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
none of the above

20.  

Assume a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a character trait with these genotypic frequencies: AA = 0.25, Aa = 0.50, and aa = 0.25. If you remove all the homozygous dominants and allow the remaining population to reproduce (again under Hardy-Weinberg conditions), what will be the frequency of homozygous dominants in the next generation?

0
0.11
0.22
0.44
0.50


21.  

Stabilizing selection _____.

favors intermediate variants in a population
prevents mutations from occurring
occurs when some individuals migrate to an area with different environmental conditions
can take place only in species exhibiting sexual dimorphism
occurs only in plants


22.  

Scientists have warned doctors of the danger of their increasing use of antibiotics (for instance, penicillin) for treating minor illnesses. They are concerned because ____________.

humans will become tolerant to the effects of drugs
excessive use of these drugs leads to a diminished sensitivity to them
strains of microorganisms that are resistant to these drugs will be selected
the drugs will be metabolized more quickly by our bodies, decreasing their effectiveness
none of these


23.  

In a large population of randomly breeding individuals, the frequency of the recessive allele is initially 0.3. There is no migration and no selection. What is the frequency of homozygous recessive individuals in this population?

30%
70%
90%
42%
9%


24.  

In a large population of randomly breeding individuals, the frequency of the recessive allele is initially 0.3. There is no migration and no selection. After ten breeding generations, the frequency of homozygous recessive individuals in this population will ____________.

decrease by about 10%, 1% each year
decrease by about 30%, 10% each year
decrease by some amount less than 10%
increase by about 10%, 1% each year
be essentially the same as after the first year


25.  

Which of the following scenarios would most likely result in the microevolution of a population of humans?

Only random mating takes place in all the people that reproduce in North America.
A colony of humans on the moon is isolated from Earth.
The incidence of skin cancer in adults over age 40 rises significantly.
All of the people in Georgia are killed in a natural disaster.
Both random mating and an increase in middle-aged skin cancer.


26.  

If an earthquake hit a small island so that all but a tiny group of lizards were eliminated and the survivors spread out over the island, this would be an instance of _____.

founder effect
bottleneck effect
gene flow
mutation
nonrandom mating


27.  

Natural selection is sometimes described as survival of the fittest. Which of the following most accurately measures an organism's fitness?

how strong it is when pitted against others of its species
its mutation rate
how many fertile offspring it produces
its ability to withstand environmental extremes
how much food it is able to make or obtain


28.  

Which of the following changes in the gene pool results in an adaptation to the environment?

nonrandom mating
genetic drift
natural selection
gene flow
mutation


29.  

Natural selection primarily acts on _____.

phenotypes
genotypes
mutations
heterozygotes
homozygotes


30.  

In an isolated population containing 5,000 breeding members, the frequency of an allele was observed to change from 0.5 to 0.4 in one generation. What is the most likely explanation for this shift in allele frequency?

genetic drift
mutation pressure
natural selection
chance event
insufficient population size


31.  

Which of the following statements best describes how the process of natural selection works to change allele frequencies?

The best-adapted organisms will leave behind more offspring.
A small population size encourages genetic diversity.
The best-adapted organisms will survive.
Allele frequencies will change in response to changes in population size.
Beneficial mutations will arise in response to a new environment.


32.  

The ultimate source of all genetic variation is _____.

natural selection
genetic drift
sexual recombination
the environment
mutation


33.  

Critics like to point out that the theory of evolution is flawed because it is based on random changes: mutations. They say that a random change in an organism (or a car or a TV set) is likely to harm it, not make it function better. What logical statement refutes these critics?

Fossils prove without a doubt that mutations drive evolution.
Mutation is random; natural selection is not.
Mutation has little to do with evolution.
This is a weak spot in the theory that remains to be worked out.
Mutations are not random.


34.  

Each of us is part of the ongoing evolution of the human species. Which of the following occurrences would have the greatest impact on the future biological evolution of the human population?

You work out every day so that you stay physically fit and healthy.
A mutation occurs in one of your skin cells.
You move to Hawaii, the state with the longest life expectancy.
A mutation occurs in one of your sperm or egg cells.
You encourage your children to develop their intellectual abilities.


35.  

A geneticist studied a grass population growing in an area of erratic rainfall and found that plants with alleles for curled leaves reproduced better in dry years, and plants with alleles for flat leaves reproduced better in wet years. This situation would _____.

cause genetic drift in the grass population
preserve the variability in the grass population
lead to directional selection in the grass population
lead to uniformity in the grass population
cause gene flow in the grass population


36.  

Under some conditions, heterozygotes have greater reproductive success than homozygotes. What is this called?

polymorphism
clines
genetic drift
co-dominance
heterozygote advantage


37.  

Which of the following would seem to be an example of neutral variation?

homozygosity of the cheetah population
polymorphism of the Galápagos finches
founder effect
human fingerprints
moth coloration


38.  

Biologists often use the term "fitness" when speaking of evolution. Below are descriptions of four male grizzly bears. According to your understanding of evolution, which bear would biologists consider the most fit?
NAME
George
Ben
Spot
Sandy
SIZE
10 ft

1,200 lb
8.5 ft

1,000 lb
9 ft

1,100 lb
9 ft

1,000 lb
NUMBER OF CUBS FATHERED
19
25
20
20
NUMBER OF CUBS SURVIVING TO ADULTHOOD
15
14
14
19
COMMENTS George is very large, very healthy. The strongest bear. Ben mated with the greatest number of females. When the area that Spot lived in was destroyed by fire, Spot was able to move to a new area and change his feeding habits. Sandy was killed by an infection resulting from a cut in his foot.
AGE AT DEATH
13 yr
16 yr
12 yr
9 yr

The fittest bear was _________.

George
Ben
Spot
Sandy
There is not enough information to answer the question.


39.  

To be successful in evolutionary terms, an organism must _________.

adapt to environmental changes
acquire characteristics that help it survive
survive longer than other members of the population
have the maximum number of mutations
pass its genes on to the next generation


40.  

Birds with average-size wings survived a severe storm more successfully than other birds in the same population with longer or shorter wings. This illustrates _____.

the founder effect
stabilizing selection
artificial selection
gene flow
diversifying selection


41.  

A population of squirrels is preyed on by small hawks. The smaller squirrels can escape into burrows. The larger squirrels can fight off the hawks. After several generations, the squirrels in the area tend to be very small or very large. What process is responsible for this outcome?

stabilizing selection
directional selection
diversifying selection
artificial selection
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

Answers: 1 A; 2 A; 3 D; 4 A; 5 D; 6 E; 7 E; 8 A; 9 C; 10 D; 11 B; 12 E; 13 D; 14 D; 15 C; 16 B; 17 D; 18 E; 19 B; 20 B; 21 A; 22 C; 23 E; 24 E; 25 B; 26 B; 27 C; 28 C; 29 A; 30 C; 31 A; 32 E; 33 B; 34 D; 35 B; 36 E; 37 D; 38 D; 39 E; 40 B; 41 C